Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 16.06.2025 02:57
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Why do the majority of feminists hate men (not all feminists)?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Why do liberals think it is okay to steal votes while the rest of us obey the law(s)?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.